Aptitude - Discounts Online Quiz


Advertisements


Following quiz provides Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) related to Discounts. You will have to read all the given answers and click over the correct answer. If you are not sure about the answer then you can check the answer using Show Answer button. You can use Next Quiz button to check new set of questions in the quiz.

Questions and Answers

Q 1 - The true discount and the simple interest on a certain sum for a given time and at a given rate are Rs. 240 and Rs. 160 respectively. The sum is:

A - 375

B - 400

C - 430

D - 480

Answer : D

Explanation

Sum =( S.I * T.D )/(S.I - T.D)=( 240 * 160 )/(240-160)=480

Q 2 - Rs. 40 is the true discount on Rs. 520 due after a certain time. What will be the true discount on the same sum due after half of the former time, the rate of interest being the same?

A - Rs. 19.66

B - Rs. 20.66

C - Rs. 21.66

D - Rs. 22.66

Answer : C

Explanation

S.I. on Rs. (520 - 40) for a given time = Rs. 40.
S.I. on Rs. 480 for half the time = Rs. 20.
T.D. on Rs. 500 = Rs. 20
T.D. on Rs. 520 =Rs. (  20/480 * 520)= Rs. 21.66 

Q 3 - The present worth of a certain bill due sometime hence is Rs. 1600 and the true discount is Rs. 40. The banker's discount is:

A - 41

B - 50

C - 51

D - 41.6

Answer : A

Explanation

(T.D.)2 = P.W. * B.G
=>  B.G=(T.D.)2/
P.W.=402/1600=1
=>B.D =T.D. + B.G. 
= 40+1 
=41

Q 4 - Ramesh has to pay Rs. 440 to Suresh after 1 year. Suresh asks Ramesh to pay Rs. 220 in cash and defer the payment of Rs. 220 for 2 years. Ramesh agrees to it. If the rate of interest be 10% per annum, in this mode of payment:

A - Ramesh Loss Rs. 3.33

B - Ramesh Gain Rs. 3.33

C - Suresh Loss Rs. 22

D - Suresh Gain Rs. 22

Answer : A

Explanation

Ramesh has to pay = Present worth of Rs. 440 due 1 year hence =Rs.  440 * 100/( 100+(10*1))=Rs. 400.
Ramesh actually pays = Rs. 220 + Present worth of Rs. 220 due 2 year hence =220+220*100/( 100+(10*2))=403.33
 So Ramesh Loss = Rs. (400-403.33) = Rs. 3.33

Q 5 - The difference between a discount of 20% on Rs. 1000 and two successive discounts of 16% and 4% on the same amount is

A - Rs.6

B - Rs.6.4

C - Rs.6.5

D - Rs. 6.75

Answer : B

Explanation

First discount of 20% on 1000=Rs. 200
Second discount = (16% of 1000)+(4% of 84% of 1000)
= (160) + (  4/100 x 84/100 *1000) =Rs. 193.6
Difference=Rs. (200-193.6) =Rs.6.4.

Q 6 - The present worth of Rs 2800 due 2 years henceforth at 6% p.a. is:

A - Rs 2464

B - Rs 2500

C - Rs 3360

D - Rs 3100

Answer : B

Explanation

P.W. = ((100*A))/(100+(R*T))- Rs {(100*2800)/(100+(6*2))}
=Rs ((100*2800)/112)=Rs 2500

Q 7 - The straightforward hobby and the genuine rebate on a sure total due 6 months subsequently are Rs 25 and Rs 24 individually. The rate of interest per annum is:

A - 8%

B - 17/2%

C - 35/4%

D - 25/3%

Answer : D

Explanation

((S.I.)*(T.D.))/((S.I.)-(T.D.))=Rs ((25*24))/((25-24))= Rs 600
S.I. on Rs 600 for 6 months is Rs 25
∴ Rate = (100*125)/(600*6/12)% p.a. = 25/3% p.a.

Q 8 - A man bought dairy animals for Rs 3000 in real money and sold it that day for Rs 3660 due 2 years consequently. In the event that the rate of hobby is 10% p.a., the man picks up:

A - 0%

B - 5%

C - 7.5%

D - None of these

Answer : D

Explanation

C.P. = Rs 3000
S.P. = P.W. of Rs 3660 due years hence
= Rs  ((100*3660))/(100+(10*2))=Rs ((100*3660))/120 = Rs 3050
∴ Gain% = (50/3000*100)% = 5/3%

Q 9 - The genuine markdown on Rs 960 due 2 years thus is equivalent to the basic enthusiasm on Rs 750 for a long time. What is the rate of interest per annum?

A - 12%

B - 14%

C - 15%

D - 50/3%

Answer : B

Explanation

S.I. on Rs 750 for 2 years = T.D. on Rs 960 due 2 years hence
∴ P.W. of Rs. 960 due 2 years hence = Rs 750
∴ T.D. = Rs (960-750) = Rs 210
∴ Rate = ((100*210))/((750*2))% p.a. = 14% p.a.

Q 10 - A needs to pay Rs 1573 to B following 11/2 years and B needs to pay Rs 1444.50 to A following 6 months. In the event that the rate of hobby is 14% for each annum and both need to settle the record at this time, who will pay to the next and what amount?

A - A, Rs 28.50

B - B, Rs 37.50

C - A, Rs 50

D - B, Rs 50

Answer : D

Explanation

P.W. of loan on A = Rs ((100*1573))/(100+(14*2/3) )= Rs ((100*1573))/121= Rs 1300
P.W. of loan on B = Rs ((100*1444.50))/(100+(14*1/2) )= Rs ((144450))/103= Rs 1350
So, B will pay Rs. 50


aptitude_discounts.htm

Advertisements