Q 1 - Which condition best allows leveraging of test configurations?

A - The test is configurable.

B - The test is manual.

C - The test is automated.

D - The test donot have parameters.

Q 2 - Which application can you use to design a new Custom Report Template?

A - Microsoft Excel

B - Microsoft Word

C - HP Template Generator

D - Document Generator

Q 3 - What can you do in the Configuration tab of a report?

A - Assign a report to a test step

B - Share reports

C - Link reports to test step

D - Select the report output format

Q 4 - What is required to create a Baseline Report?

A - The baseline must support the history template.

B - All report sections must support test configurations.

C - All report sections must support baselines.

D - The baseline must support the standard template.

Q 5 - Which integrations for HP Application Lifecycle Management are supported by the Free HP ALM Mylyn Connector? (Select two.)

1. Microsoft TFS connector

2. Bugzilla

3. Collabnet connector

4. CVS

5. Rational CiearQuest

A - (1) and (2) only

B - (2) and (4) only

C - (3) and (5) only

D - (3) and (2) only

Q 6 - From which tabs in the Test Lab module can you add tests to a test set? (Select two.)

1. Testing Tree tab

2. Requirements Tree tab

3. Test Plan Tree tab

4. Releases Tree tab

5. Cycle Tree tab

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (2) and (3) Only

C - (4) and (5) Only

D - (4) and (1) only

Q 7 - What does assigning each Test Set folder to a Cycle enable you to do?

A - Group together test sets that will be run during the same cycle and analyze the progress of the cycle as you run your tests

B - Separate test sets that will be run during the same cycle and analyze the progress of the cycle as you run your tests

C - Group together test sets that will be run during different cycles and check the global requirements

D - Separate test sets that will be run during the same cycle and check the global requirements

Q 8 - What happens if a team member tries to delete a representative requirement?

A - The deletion succeeds. The requirement coverage of the model entity is lost.

B - The deletion fails. The representative requirements are read-only and are therefore protected from deletion.

C - The deletion fails. The representative requirement is automatically made read-only, and an alert is optionally triggered.

D - The deletion succeeds. The representative requirement is moved to the Obsolete folder.

Q 9 - he business analyst team released a new version of the "Ship Product" Business Process model. What does HP Application Lifecycle Management do when it re-imports the model file?

A - It unlinks all existing representative requirements associated with the model and activity entities, and creates and links new ones.

B - It adds new path entities for any new alternate flows it detects.

C - It creates new model and activity entities if any new models or activities are detected in the imported file based on name.

D - It creates duplicate representative requirements for any re-imported activities that have different GUIDs than before.

Q 10 - What can you do by creating a new Requirement Type? (Select two.)

1. Define a new KPI

2. Define which fields are required

3. Associate the new requirement with a Cycle

4. Define a Rich Text Template

5. Define new requirement coverage status

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (2) and (4) Only

C - (2) and (5) Only

D - (1) and (3) Only

Q 11 - How is a set of data defined in an Excel report?

A - SQL queries on the project database.

B - SQL queries on the management database.

C - Data Grid view from the Testing module.

D - Data Grid view from the Dashboard module.

Q 12 - In the Test Plan module, which graph enables you to correlate the number of tests and the elapsed time interval?

A - Tests Summary graph

B - Tests Results graph

C - Tests Trend graph

D - Tests Progress graph

Q 13 - A company is using HP Quality Center (QC) 10 and HP Application Lifecycle Management (ALM) 11. During an upgrade, how should you install the clients?

A - Do not install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; it will cause errors and HP QC 10 will fail to start.

B - Do not install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; it will cause errors and HP ALM 11 will fail to start.

C - Install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; do not start both clients because it will cause errors.

D - Install HP QC 10 and HP ALM11 clients on the same machine; use both clients, side-by-side, in different browser instances.

Q 14 - What are the advantages of clearly and correctly defining requirements at the front end of a project? (Select three.)

1. Sets clear expectations between stakeholders

2. Improves the automated test performance

3. Provides stakeholders with guidelines of what the priorities are

4. Cuts waste and eliminates unnecessary expenditure

5. Allows integration with external tools

6. Eases the association between test sets and cycles

A - (1) (3) and (4) only

B - (2) (4) and (6) only

C - (1) (3) and (5) only

D (1) (2) and (6) only

Q 15 - Which feature enables the manager of an HP Application Lifecycle Management project to define a snapshot of the requirements after they are signed off by users?

A - Baseline

B - Traceability Matrix

C - Document Generator

D - Graph Wizard

Q 16 - What does HP Sprinter's Storyboard feature do?

A - Enhances test results with screen captures of the application under test, taken during the test run

B - Enables testers to design tests by capturing, annotating, and assembling a sequence of screen captures of the application under test

C - Provides a movie editing toolbox for extracting, annotating, and assembling a sequence of screen captures after a test run

D - Enables testers to view a guiding sequence of annotated screen captures during their test run via the Storyboard sidebar

Q 17 - Coverage Progress and Outstanding Defects are two graphs for tracking progress and quality of your releases. Which entities must be assigned to the release and cycle for these graphs to provide the complete information for your release? (Select three.)

1. Tests

2. Components

3. Resources

4. Test Sets

5. Requirements

6. Defects

A - (4) (5) and (6) only

B - (1) (2) and (3) only

C - (1) (3) and (5) only

D - (2) (4) and (6) only

Q 18 - Which description applies to HP Application Lifecycle Management access?

A - Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Supported), access may be restricted by project, and projects to which you have no access are not visible.

B - Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Supported), access may be restricted by project or role, and projects to which you have no access are visible.

C - Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Not Supported), access may be restricted only by role, and projects not accessible by your role are not visible.

D - Login credentials are required (Single Sign On Supported), access may be restricted only by role, and projects not accessible by your role are not visible.

Q 19 - What is a prerequisite for using the Business Models module?

A - Models must be created in standard BPMN or EPC modeling tools.

B - Models must be created using RUP.

C - Models must be created in Excel.

D - HP Application Lifecycle Management Modeling Manager must be implemented.

Q 20 - Which HP Application Lifecycle Management module allows you to manage, view, and create graphs?

A - Management

B - Dashboard

C - Reports

D - Business Objects

Q 21 - Which elements are considered part of the Defects module? (Select three.)

1. Defects grid

2. Test grid

3. Link defect

4. Grid filters

5. Defects toolbar

6. Rich textbox

A - (1) (4) and (5) only

B - (1) (2) and (3) only

C - (1) (3) and (5) only

D - (2) (4) and (6) only

Q 22 - In accordance with best practice, what should you do before logging a new defect?

A - Assign a defect ID.

B - Search for an existing defect.

C - Copy from an existing defect.

D - Link the defect with a requirement.

Q 23 - What can be directly associated with defects?

1. Requirements

2. Test resources

3. Test sets

4. Test components

5. Test instances

6. Baselines

A - (1) (2) and (3)

B - (1) (3) and (5)

C - (2) (4) and (6)

D - (1) (2) and (5)

Q 24 - Which ALM modules enable you to perform version control? (Select two.)

1. Test Plan, Test Resources

2. Test Plan, Test Lab

3. Test Resources, Defects

4. Requirements, Business Components

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (4) and (2) Only

C - (2) and (3) Only

D - (1) and (4) only

Q 25 - In a version controlled project, which command enables you to create a new version for an entity?

A - CHECK OUT

B - CHECK IN

C - Generate Version number

D - ASSIGN

Q 26 - In a version controlled project, which icon indicates that you have an entity checked-out?

A - Red lock icon

B - Blue lock icon

C - Green lock icon

D - Yellow lock icon

Q 27 - Your project manager wants you to use an existing set of requirements and tests across five projects in your organization. Which function should you use to accomplish this?

A - Baseline

B - Template

C - Component

D - Version

Q 28 - What does baseline enable a user to do? (Select two.)

1. Establish a snapshot of the library at a specific point in time

2. Establish a screenshot of the Library Tree at every point in time

3. Keep track of changes made to a project over time

4. Keep track of modifications made to the Quality Center software over time

5. Keep track of changes made to a project plan over time

A - (1) and (3) only

B - (2) and (4) only

C - (1) and (2) only

D - (3) and (5) only

Q 29 - What happens when you synchronize two libraries?

A - Both libraries are updated with any changes.

B - Both libraries remain the same.

C - The synchronizing library is updated with changes made in the other library.

D - Changes from the synchronizing library are made in the other library.

Q 30 - Which module enables you to view the instances of tests ?

A - Test Resources

B - Test Plan

C - Test Lab

D - Business Components

Q 31 - What are functions of the Dashboard module? (Select four.)

1. Create standard and Excel reports

2. Export and publish dashboard pages

3. Create dashboard pages

4. Create, view, and manage graphs

5. Create and view defects

6. Generate results

7. Analyze HP ALM data

A - (1) (3) (4) and (7)

B - (1) (3) (5) and (7)

C - (2) (4) (6) and (7)

D - (3) (4) (5) and (7)

Q 32 - Which tool enables you to export data from ALM to a Microsoft Word document?

A - Word Document Generator

B - Document Generator

C - Data Exporter

D - Data Export Wizard

Q 33 - Which type of data from an Excel spreadsheet can be imported Into ALM? (Select three.)

1. Requirements

2. Tests

3. Test instances

4. Defects

5. Baseline

6. Test plan

A - (1) (2) and (3)

B - (1) (2) and (4)

C - (2) (4) and (6)

D - (1) (3) and (5)

Q 34 - How can you verify that the Excel add-in is successfully installed?

A - ALM → Tools → Export to ALM

B - Excel Spreadsheet → Tools → Export to ALM

C - ALM → Tools → Import to ALM

D - Excel Spreadsheet → Tools → Import to ALM

Q 35 - What does the term priority refer to?

A - How soon the defect needs to be fixed

B - How quickly you can assign the defect to the developer

C - How soon you can close the defect

D - Which action to take to close the defect

Q 36 - Using Dashboard, what is the maximum number of graphs per page that you can create by default?

A - 6

B - 4

C - 8

D - 10

Q 37 - When creating an Excel report, what is used to extract the data?

A - Data Definition Wizard

B - Structured Data Wizard

C - Data Definition Language

D - Structured Query Language

Q 38 - Under Releases, what is cycle referes to?

A - A subset of the new features implemented in an application that has undergone a series of test cycles

B - A set of tests designed for a specific purpose such as new feature functionality, security, and performance

C - A set of development and quality assurance efforts that is performed to achieve a common goal based on the release timeline

D - A version of an application representing a group of changes that is available for distribution to customers at the same time

Q 39 - What are the advantages of a well-defined requirement? (Select four.)

1. Aids development and testing

2. Establishes guidelines for the Center of Excellence

3. Helps prevent scope creep

4. Sets clear expectations between teams

5. Facilitates reuse of test cases

6. Saves time and money

7. Helps define libraries

A - (2) (4) (6) and (7)

B - (1) (3) (5) and (7)

C - (1) (3) (4) and (6)

D - (1) (4) (6) and (7)

Q 40 - What should you consider while gathering requirements?

A - Customer's expectations

B - Testing processes

C - Developers expectations

D - Life cycle model